I received your mail regarding my question about oral sex. I got an impression that you did not pay due attention on it. The reason, I guess, will be the lack of time. Anyway I make the allowance.

If you go through my clarification you will find that I admitted in the beginning that the Shari`ah does not categorically prohibit oral sex, i.e. the Shari`ah did not take the name of oral sex and ask people to refrain from it. So it is very clear whatever I say next is my derivation.

The thing I said was that "The verses, I referred to, are clearly indicating...basic demands of Allah" is not based, as the word "verses" implies, only on the verse 222 that you analyzed, but on a combined comprehension of verse 222 & 223. Now I find it much better to describe my understanding of these verses in detail which, for me, are against oral sex.

VERSE 222

I agree with you that the first verse is specifically related to the discontinuity of sexual relations during menstruation period. However I derived a general rule from this specific directive. This directive about sexual relation is based on a declaration of Allah that menstruation is a state of uncleanness. So in any other case of sexual relation, where "uncleanness" is found, should also be prohibited. I simply implied this general rule on oral sex.

If you don't agree with my derivation, even then, you have to prove either of the following to support oral sex:

1. There is no possibility that during the course of oral sex secretions of reproductive organs will go into the mouth.

2. The secretions of reproductive organs are pure enough. So the overall directives of Shari`ah regarding "Nijasat" [uncleanness] don't apply on them even if they go into the mouth.

One more point to note. This verse not only tells us when to make love (intercourse), but how to do it. The word 'Haithu' is the key point. A number of Commentators of Qur`an say that Allah stopped from Vagina (the source of blood) and when prohibition is removed what else should come to mind except Vaginal Sex.

VERSE 223

The verse 223 is clearly a description of "how". Here the Qur`an used the word "Harth" for wives. And thus left no possibility for any other form of sexual relation except vaginal sex. If a sanction of oral sex or anal sex is given, the word "Harth" will lose all its significance and will become meaningless. This is the reason that the next part of the verse is very open i.e. "Fa'too harthakum anna shi'tum", as Allah has already limited the scope of sexual relation between husbands and wives by using the word "Harth".

In this verse Allah is simply telling the believers that vaginal sex is the only proper way of making love and for this vaginal sex whatever style satisfies you, go for it. There is no restriction on you.

I tell you one thing. When I read this verse, first time in my life I realized why Labeed, when asked why he had quit the poetry, said: "Is it possible after Al-Baqarah and Aal-e-Imraan?"

Anyway this is my comprehension of these two verses of the Qur`an, which I find against oral sex.

Thanks and Regards.

I have considered all your points closely and find them to be quite interesting and logical. But I do feel that some clarification is required regarding my point of view and my arguments too. The important point that I would like you to note is that I am not a proponent of oral sex. I have not suggested in any of my writings that oral sex is, in anyway, a necessity or something that Islam promotes. My point of view, since the first letter has been that there is no clear directive regarding oral sex in the Shari`ah. And because of this reason it is beyond my jurisdiction to term it “prohibited”. Therefore, the burden of providing evidence regarding the prohibition or otherwise of oral sex is on those who hold it to be prohibited.

You write:

“However I derived a general rule from this specific directive. This directive about sexual relation is based on a declaration of Allah that menstruation is a state of uncleanness. So in any other case of sexual relation, where “uncleanness” is found, should also be prohibited. I simply implied this general rule on oral sex.”

I do not have any disagreement with you on this point. The only issue is that menstruation has been specifically declared as a state of “uncleanness” by the Shari`ah, whereas the act of oral sex is not. To clarify my point, I would like to give you an example. Suppose the Qur’an in this verse had only directed that “Muslims should stay away from all unclean acts”, without a clear reference to women’s menstruation being one of the states of uncleanness. In such a situation, although it would have been prohibited for Muslims to indulge in unclean acts, but sexual relations with women during their menstruation would not then have been a prohibition of the Shari`ah, because then the very definition of “uncleanness” would have been left to human nature and understanding.

I can only say that those who do hold oral sex to be an “unclean” act normally do not indulge in it. While on the other hand, we do not have any basis in the directives of the Shari`ah to convince those who do not hold oral sex to be an “unclean” act, to the contrary (i.e. of its being an “unclean” act).

Furthermore, it should also be noted that the Qur’an has not said that all “unclean” sexual acts are prohibited or that sexual relations with a menstruating woman is an “unclean sexual act”. It has actually stated that during menstruation, a woman, from a specific perspective, is in a state of “uncleanness”, and therefore sexual relations during these days should be avoided. If any general rule is to be drawn from this statement of the Qur’an, it should not be that “any other case of sexual relation, where uncleanness is found, should also be prohibited”, on the contrary, it should be that “the same directive may be derived for any other state of uncleanness for a woman, as for example in the case of puerperal bleeding”.

You write:

This verse not only tells us when to make love (intercourse), but how to do it. The word ‘Haithu’ is the key point. A number of Commentators of Qur`an say that Allah stopped from Vagina (the source of blood) and when prohibition is removed what else should come to mind except Vaginal Sex.

I fully agree with you. The words:

"come unto them in the manner that God ordained you."

clearly refer to the fact that the correct way of sexual intercourse is only the way that nature meant it to be. But I think that deriving the prohibition of oral sex from this verse will be a little far fetched. This verse deals with sexual intercourse, whereas oral sex cannot be termed as a method of “sexual intercourse”.

You write:

The verse 223 is clearly a description of “how”. Here the Qur`an used the word “Harth” for wives. And thus left no possibility for any other form of sexual relation except vaginal sex. If a sanction of oral sex or anal sex is given, the word “Harth” will lose all its significance and will become meaningless. This is the reason that the next part of the verse is very open i.e. “Fa’too harthakum anna shi’tum”, as Allah has already limited the scope of sexual relation between husbands and wives by using the word “Harth”.

In this verse Allah is simply telling the believers that vaginal sex is the only proper way of making love and for this vaginal sex whatever style satisfies you, go for it. There is no restriction on you.

Once again, you have derived your point of view regarding oral sex from a verse which is actually not even indirectly referring to it. As you yourself have stated that the verse is actually stating that “vaginal sex is the only proper way of making love”. I fully agree with you. But I really think that on the basis of this verse, which is actually stating that “vaginal sex is the only proper way of making love” one can only say that intercourse should be restricted to vaginal intercourse. But this statement obviously does not mean that all forms of foreplay are prohibited by the Shari`ah.

I do appreciate and respect your opinion. And I would also like to state that my personal opinion is not much different from yours. But to say that a particular thing or act is prohibited in the Shari`ah needs clear evidence from the Qur’an and the Sunnah, which we seem to lack in this case.

I hope this helps. In case any further explanation is required, please feel free to write back to me at your convenience.

Regards