In your response, you write:
If, contrary to the existing laws, man were born at a mature age, rather than infancy, and were not subjected to the laws of ageing and of death, then there would have been no need for marriage or marital laws.
Dear brother, I disagree with your response. Did not the Qur’an say:
Even so (it will be). And We shall wed them unto fair ones with wide, lovely eyes (Ad-Dukhan:54)
They will recline (with ease) on thrones arranged in ranks. And We shall marry them to Houris (female, fair ones) with wide lovely eyes” (At-Tur 52: 20).
and in some other instances also.
I don’t know whether various marital laws be applicable in the hereafter or not. But Qur’an says that the righteous will marry.
Therefore, is not your statement against the Qur’an?
In each of the referred verses of the Qur’an, the Arabic verb “زوج“ is used in its literal sense, implying to make pairs, to combine, to provide companionship etc. The implication of ‘marriage’ in this verb is an extension of these literal meanings. The verb has been used in its literal connotation in the following verses of the Qur’an. Al-Shooraa 42: 50 says:
أَوْ يُزَوِّجُهُمْ ذُكْرَانًا وَإِنَاثًا وَيَجْعَلُ مَنْ يَشَاءُ عَقِيمًا إِنَّهُ عَلِيمٌ قَدِيرٌ
Or He combines both boys and girls for them (i.e. he bestows upon them male as well as female offspring).
Al-Takweer 81: 7 reads:
وَإِذَا النُّفُوسُ زُوِّجَتْ
When people shall be grouped together (according to their deeds)
Similarly, in the verses that you have referred, the verb can be construed as connoting making pairs, combining, providing companionship etc.
I hope this helps.
April 16, 2002