Question
I have read all of the articles pertaining to questions if the Torah, Injeel and other scriptures before the Qur’an were corrupted. Excuse my frustration but please give a straight forward answer if these previous scriptures in times of the Qur’anic revelation and the direct addressee of the Qur’an were corrupted or not. We believe that they are corrupted now but how about in the time of the Qur’anic revelation. Please provide a simple answer as to what your stance is on this issue? I understand that the Jews and Christians were guilty of altering the word and the context but were the actual scriptures corrupted? Please support your response with Qur’anic verses.
Also, please comment on the translation of 3:3 by Muhammad Asad listed below. He has always listed “whatever there still remains of the earlier revelations” when the Qur’an mentions previous scriptures (Torah and Injeel).
For example, “Step by step has He bestowed upon thee from on high this divine writ, setting forth the truth which confirms whatever there still remains [of the earlier revelations]: for it is He who has bestowed from on high the Torah and the Gospel. (3:3)
Thank you for the great work and yours sincerely.
Answer
The scriptures of the Jews and Christians were indeed corrupted at revelation of the Qur’an. As a matter of fact one of the reasons the Qur’an was delivered was to reaffirm the truthful aspects of the previous scriptures and correct misbeliefs that developed as a result of human interpolation of faith and holy books of God. The history of the Biblical text is a long one, however, even early on many of the books were tampered with. Many of the Old Testament authors are truly unknown, neither of those of the New Testament. So although it is claimed that these books were inspired by God we do not know exactly who they were inspired to. The following verse speaks to the notion of interpolation:
How can you say, “We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD ,” when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely? – Jeremiah 8:8 (NIV)
It is clear that the verse points to the corruption that occurred in the text of the books of the Bible. Keep in mind that the Qur’an mentions the corrupted scriptures and the true messages of God that came before the Qur’an. Hence, one needs to appreciate the context of the verses to gather what the Qur’an is referring to.
We do not agree with Muhammad Asad’s interpretation of this verse. The Qur’an was revealed in truth and with the truth. The implication here is that it contains the Truth and is a validation of the prophecies about it in previous revelations. Here the “previous revelations” are related to God’s true messages that came before the Qur’an, which spoke of its coming and the arrival of the Prophet.
Thus, (O Prophet) He has revealed upon you this book with the Truth, confirming the prophesies that preceded it – and (for the same purpose) He had revealed the Torah and the Gospels before it, a guidance to humankind – and He (it is, Who) has (now) revealed this Criterion (to decide between the right and the wrong in the name of His guidance). – Aal Imran 3:3-4
After reading the above translation it should be appreciated that the verse is not alluding to what “still remains” of the previous scriptures but rather the true prophecies that were revealed then, which may still be found in the scriptures of the Jews and Christians during the Prophet’s time.
I hope I have clarified the issue.
God knows best.