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Regarding 'Oral Sex'


Question

My consideration, not an objection, is about your viewpoint regarding oral sex. Justifying it you wrote:

Islam does not give any specific directions regarding the allowance or otherwise of oral sex. Nevertheless, Islam does not only give a list of do's and don'ts; in addition to the legal structure of Islam, it also guides man toward a path, which elevates his sense and his tastes of mental, physical and spiritual purity and cleanliness. Thus, it seems that even though one of the things that is required of the relationship between a husband and wife is that it should provide them with the mutual pleasure and gratification that helps them in removing all their frustrations and thereby allows them to live a purified life, yet even in seeking his/her complete sexual gratification, a Muslim cannot feel comfortable in indulging into something, which is against his sense of mental, physical and spiritual purity and cleanness.

I fully agree with you. But whenever I read the last part of verse 222 and starting of 223 of Al-Baqarah (i.e. Fa iza tatah'harna¢â‚¬¦ harsul lakum) I feel they are against oral sex. If you could give your opinion on oral sex with respect to my above quoted verses, I'll grateful to you.



Question from Saudi Arabia
Answer

A Clarification Sought

Your question/comment needs some clarification. I do not fully understand your derivation from the referred verse. Please let me know what exactly is your point.

 

The Clarification

My question is based on the concept that although the Shari`ah does not categorically prohibit oral sex, it appears to be against the overall teachings of the Shari`ah. The verses, I referred to, are clearly indicating that even in sexual behavior, where emotions often tend get out of control, one should keep in mind that purification (Taharat) is one of the a basic demands of Allah.

Now when we look at oral sex, we find that it ultimately causes the secretions of reproductive organs to go into the mouth. This is inevitable during this course, but on the other hand, it is against the concept of Taharat. This is my personal understanding. I want to know your pinion in this regard.

Rehan Ahmad, Jeddah, Saudi Arabia

 

Reply

The verse that you have referred to relates actually to the prohibition of sexual relations with a woman during her menstrual periods. A simple translation of this verse follows:

“They ask thee concerning menstruation. Say, it is state of uncleanness [for women]. So keep away from women during their menstruation, and do not go near them till are clean. Then, after they wash themselves, come unto them from where God has directed you.”

A look at this verse would show that they relate specifically to the discontinuity of sexual relations between a man and a woman during menstruation. The particular part of the verse that you refer to, i.e. “Then, after they wash themselves, come unto them from where God has directed you.”, tells us of the time when this prohibition is removed.

In view of the above clarification, it is difficult for me to understand the derivations that you have made from this verse. The verse is not indicating that “even in sexual behavior, where emotions often tend get out of control, one should keep in mind that purification (Taharat) is one of the a basic demands of Allah”, as you have stated. On the contrary, this verse is actually prohibiting sexual relations during menstruation because it is uncleanness. And then removing this prohibition after the uncleanness is removed. Deriving the prohibition or otherwise of oral sex from this verse seems quite far-fetched.

In any case, the point remains that there is no clear directive regarding oral sex in the Shari`ah. If you feel that it may be derived from the referred or any other verse of the Qur’an that oral sex is against the over-all teachings of the Shari`ah, you may then say that “although there is no clear directive regarding oral sex in the Shari`ah, but in my opinion, it may be derived from such and such verse that oral sex is against the over-all teachings of the Shari`ah”. This would be necessary so that our direct or indirect derivations are not perceived to be a part of the Shari`ah by the lay man.

I hope this helps. In case any further explanation is required, please feel free to write back to me at your convenience.

Regards




Answer published by Moiz Amjad

Last Updated on Friday, 15 April 2011 06:45