Why Different Translations of The Same Verse?
The Qur’an is supposed to be in a
simple language, which can be easily understood, I know it is not easy for a
person like me who doesn’t know the Arabic language. Is it in fact easy for a
person whose mother tongue is Arabic? If so why are there so many different
translations? (I presume that only people who knew the language well have
undertaken the translation).
Tauqeer Hasan, Denmark
Reply
You have
stated: “the Qur’an is supposed to be in a simple language”. I really do
not know what you mean by that? Why is it SUPPOSED TO BE in a simple language?
What the Qur’an itself says is that “It has been made very suitable for
admonition”, which is sometimes wrongly referred to as, “it has been made
easy”. It is in the language, which the Qur’an itself has termed “Arabiyin Mobeen”, i.e. ‘clear Arabic’. It is in the language
of the “Ummul Quraa” i.e. the
Chief Town of Arabia – i.e. Mecca – which in fact was the language of the Qureish.
Therefore,
even a person whose mother tongue is Arabic, cannot have a scholarly command
over the Qur’an, if he is not well versed with the language of the “Ummul Quraa”.
The
differences in translations, however, may be ascribed to two main reasons: One
is that the translations are basically understandings of the translating minds.
Understanding and comprehension, as we know, may differ from mind to mind. It is
actually a matter of perception. The other reason for such differences in
translations is that even though people who undertook the task of translation
generally did have knowledge of the Arabic language, but it was not necessarily
the knowledge of the Classical Arabic or the Arabic of the “Ummul
Quraa”. This has a lot of bearing on the understanding of the
Qur’an. As this particular Arabic dialect had its specific idioms, phrases,
and other literary styles.
Sincerely,
Use this "Home Page" link only if you have opened this page by following an external link