A Second Query on Some Verses of Surah Aal I Imraan
Date: November 06, 1997
Interestingly you have made no mention of the following verses (3:38-40). So I am quoting them again with some doubts that you may not have received them altogether.
Verses 3:38-40
"Thereupon Zacharias prayed to his Lord, saying: 'Lord, grant me of Your own grace upright descendants. You hear all prayers.' And as he stood praying in the Shrine, the angels called out to him, saying: 'God bids you rejoice in the birth of John, who shall confirm the Word of God. He shall be princely and chaste, a prophet and a righteous man.' 'Lord,' said Zacharias, 'how shall I have a son when I am now overtaken by old age and my wife is barren?' 'Such is the will of God,' He replied. 'He does what He pleases."
First where this translation says, '......, who shall confirm the Word of God. .....' the Urdu translation says something like '.....who shall confirm the prophet hood of Jesus....' . How would you read it?
And the other point is, what conceivably could be in Zacharias' mind when he prayed for upright descendants, except a child or children? What bothers me is why was he sort of shocked on the acceptance of his prayers? So much so that he wanted some kind of a sign. And then the giving of a sign is completely not understood. Hazrat Zacharias was told by Allah to fast for three days and during this period to say his prayers and not to talk to anyone - what is your point of view? (This last part is probably the translation of verse 3:41)
3:81
Well, I have no problem in understanding the statement, 'When God made His covenant with the prophets, .......' I am taking 'covenant' to mean an agreement. But you seem to be taking the meaning of 'covenant' as an OATH, correct! No comments on the other parts of your understanding of the verse.
However, what puzzles my naive mind are questions like: When was this agreement done or oath taken in time? Was it done at any one particular instance? or it was an on-going process before each of the prophets were sent? or is it only metaphorical? If this agreement was done at one time then were all the prophets present there (they should be logically)? It seems to be pointing toward the coming of the last prophet, if so was he too present at the time of this oath taking? and did the others know of his presence? if he wasn't there, why and where was he? OR all that I have written is rubbish?
3:118
Could you elaborate this part, 'We have made plain to
you Our revelations.'
The Reply
Date: November 06, 1997
I didn't have anything to say about the verses 38 - 40 so I didn't. But now I think I should have done that... "who shall confirm the Word of God" should be more accurate, if translated as: "confirming (or giving news of the coming of) 'A' word of God"
As, in "kalimatin minalah" the word "kalimatin" is not a proper noun, therefore, it should not be translated with the definite article, as NJD has done (The Word..) it should rather be translated with the indefinite article.
As far as the difference in the urdu and English translations are concerned... they are basically a matter of interpretation. The literal translation would be close to what Dawood has done.... But here the Arabic word "Kalimatin minallah" (translated: "Word of God") is interpreted as "Jesus", Jesus has been called a "word" of God here because he was born by His "word' ... "Kun". I really do not have any objection to this interpretation. Especially, when right after the reference to Zacharias' story starts the story of the birth of Jesus, there again it is obviously him who is referred to as "A Word" (or "kalimatin") see verse 45.
I really could not understand your question: "And the other point is, what conceivably could be in Zacharias' mind when he prayed for upright descendants, except a child or children?"... please elaborate your question.
He was not shocked at the acceptance of his prayer. He just wanted to be sure that the glad tidings are really from Allah and not just his own desires turning into a hallucination or a day dream, or just an intervention of the Devil. That is why he wanted a sign.
I don't know how has NJD translated 3: 41... As I understand it, the translation should be:
"he said: God, give me a sign. God said: your sign shall be that you shall not be able to talk to people for three days, except in signs (i.e., as those who cannot speak do... in sign language) And keep to the remembrance of your Lord a lot and keep glorifying Him, day and night (i.e., all day)"
Now, there is no reference of "fasting" here. As I see it, the thing given as a sign made it certain for Zacharias that the "Good News", was really from Allah. As satan has no control over the powers of a human being... such as speaking. Furthermore, Zacharias is ordained to "keep to the remembrance of Allah" and "keep glorifying Him". Obviously both these orders cannot be from Satan. This satisfied Zacharias that the Glad Tidings of a son, really are from Allah.
The answer to your questions regarding 3: 81 need a little clarification. I ll try to be brief. But if anything remains unclear, regarding my perception of the meaning of these verses, please do write back.
Now the basic point is that in Aal Imraan (Surah 3) from verse 33 to 99, Allah has commented on the deviations of Ahle kitaab (Jews and Christians), in general and Nasaara (Christians), in particular. The following points may help in understanding these verses and their mutual relationship:
This is the introduction of the topics discussed in the verses 3: 33 - 99. Keeping this in mind, Verse 81 should be (I think) quite clear. It actually refers to the covenant (oath) of the ahl i kitaab, with Allah that they will believe and help the prophets and especially the prophet who comes as a fulfillment of the prophecies of the book that was with them. (This covenant is also referred to in Al-maidah 5: 12 and Al-a`araaf 7: 156-157).
I think with this (brief) explanation, your questions regarding verse 81 would not need any answer. In any case, please do let me know if anything remains unclear. I will be glad to be of any help, whatsoever, in the way of understanding the Book of Allah, for the sake of Allah.
And ... yes... all that you have written is not rubbish.. but it should be clear now, why I say that the correct translation is: "The Covenant regarding the prophets (taken from Ahl i kitaab)" and not "The covenant of the Prophets".
3:118:
It refers to the fact that Allah has made clear to you the motives and desires of the ahl i kitaab... now if you are heedful, you should be aware of them.
I really do hope I have been of some help, Please do let me know.
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