In one of his articles1 Mr. Jochen Katz has pointed out a contradiction in Ghaafir 40: 23 — 25 and Ta Ha 20: 38 — 39.
Mr. Katz writes that according to Ghaafir 40: 23 — 25, Pharaoh is reported to have ordered the killing of the sons of the Hebrews after Moses approached him with the Truth of God; while according to Ta Ha 20: 38 — 39, Pharaoh commanded his men to kill the sons of the Jews, when Moses was only an infant and had not received any revelation of God.
I have read this one of Mr. Katz’s criticism quite a few times but have completely failed to figure out the contradiction in the two sets of verses. One set of verses states that the Israelites were persecuted by the Pharaoh at the time that Moses (pbuh) was born, while the second set of verses states that the Pharaoh ordered the persecution of the Israelite boys after the prophethood of Moses as well.
Where is the contradiction?
I really could not understand why Mr. Katz considers the two persecutions to be mutually exclusive? Does Mr. Katz believe that the Pharaoh was allowed, by his laws, to persecute the Israelites only once?
I would request Mr. Katz to clarify his stance.
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