Question
Did Jesus Called himself Muhammad???????? Jesus in the Greek Bible used the Greek word “Periklytos” which means the admirable or glorified one. He called that predicted human prophet “Periklytos”. This word corresponds exactly to the Arabic word “Muhammad” which also means the “admired one” or “glorified one.” In other words, “Periklytos” is “Muhammad” in Greek. The word “Paraclete” is applied to Jesus (peace be upon him) himself in 1 John 2:1 “My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate (parakletos) with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.” (1 John 2:1) so if the Above is true that Jesus called himself Muhammad then: 2- Does this mean that coming of Jesus (PBUH) AGAIN predicted in the Old and New Testament? e.g. John 14:16, John 15:26, John 14:26, John 16:7-14 3- Where and how in Quran coming of Jesus (PBUH) is written and Do the Christians believe in Quran statement regarding coming of Jesu ((PBUH)?
Can you clear this out plz..
Answer
There is a discrepancy in your understanding. First, the word “periklytos” that you referred to is not the word that Jesus uses. The word used is “paraclete/paraklytos.” Periklytos does mean “praised one,” which is the exact translation of the Arabic word Muhammad. However, the word that Jesus uses is paraclete/parakletos, which means “comforter, advocate, helper, assistant.” the Blue Letter Bible Lexicon defines the word “paraclete” (Strong’s 3875) as:
1. summoned, called to one’s side, esp. called to one’s aiid
a. one who pleads another’s cause before a judge, a pleader, counsel for defense, legal assistant, an advocate
b. one who pleads another’s cause with one, an intercessor
2. of Christ in his exaltation at God’s right hand, pleading with God the Father for the pardon of our sins
c. in the widest sense, a helper, succourer, aider, assistant
3. of the Holy Spirit destined to take the place of Christ with the apostles (after his ascension to the Father), to lead them to a deeper knowledge of the gospel truth, and give them divine strength needed to enable them to undergo trials and persecutions on behalf of the divine kingdom
Having understood the correct word used in the Bible it would be safe to say that Jesus did not call himself “Muhammad,” at least not in any Biblical scripture. Had Jesus used the word “periklytos” (i.e. the praised one) and not “paraclete” (i.e. comforter, advocate) then we still would not assume that he was naming himself “Muhammad,” but it should be construed as having been used as an attribute, rather than the name of a specific person. In other words most of our names have some sort of meaning but in becoming our names they are recognized as proper nouns. So, if Jesus had used that word he would not be calling himself or anyone else “Muhammad” the proper noun but “muhammad” the quality of the meaning (i.e. praised one-noun).
Some Muslim scholars postulate that the Bible was tampered with and that the word “periklyots” was changed to “parakletos/paraclete,” which maybe the root of your confusion. I think that the rest of your questions do not need further elucidation in light of the explanation I have given.
I hope I have clarified the issue.
God knows best.