Question
Assalaamu Alaykum
Although I do agree that the verses from those its prohibition is derived seems to have another meaning too. Ahadith that ask for protecting private parts also seems to hint to the sexual intercourse not masturbation. But masturbation is haraam according to the ruling of the four Madhaahibs i.e. it is considered a sin, smaller or greater, no matter what are the circumstances. What I don’t understand is why they all prohibited it despite the availability of saying by such reliable persons like Ibn Abbas, Umar , Jabir Ibn Zayd, Hasan Basri, Mujaahid etc; those were more close to the prophet (pbuh). Does this mean that all four imams were unaware of these sayings in their time? How could Ibn Hazm the only person aware of these sayings who came much later than these scholars? Please elaborate a bit more on this issue. Thanks. Jazzakallah khairun
Answer
The interpretation of the four schools of thought does seem to be quite similar on the issue. However, such opinions are not made on secluded sayings ascribed to various companions. On the contrary, such interpretations are based on the particular scholar’s overall concept and principle of interpreting religion. Most of these schools have based their opinion on the referred verse of the Qur’an and the narratives that condemn ‘the person who marries his hand’. After having arrived at the opinion that, according to their understanding, is based on stronger grounds, these scholars would either a) reject the sayings as incorrectly ascribed to the companions or b) would like to give an explanation for these sayings that does not contradict their understanding or c) would simply reject these sayings as incorrect opinions.
As for Ibn Hazam, because his understanding of the verse of the Qur’an is different and because he considers the referred narrative to be weak, therefore, he gives more weight to the sayings ascribed to the companions of the Prophet (pbuh) than his predecessors.
I hope this would clarify the issue.